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Oct 01, 2002 10:40 PM
by leonmaurer
In a message dated 10/01/02 10:20:00 PM, micforster@yahoo.com writes: >Here is where I have becomed muddled. When we talk >about the particle/wave duality does this duality >exist on any level and in regards to any phenomenon >that we want it to exist with? What I am trying to get >at is this: when we see data that gives a graph like >the classic predator/prey cycle can we say that at >once it is both a particle and a wave? Or, another >example: when we see fluctuations in the stock market >can we say that it is at once both a particle and a >wave? No. "Particle/wave duality" refers solely to fundamental "energy packets" at the quantum level (ref: Einstein's theory of photoelectricity) and has nothing to do with cyclic graphs that refer to intangible processes or phenomenal changes on the Macro scale. e.g.; Each triple cycle primary wave front of light contains a particular amount of energy. When this energy packet strikes a semiconducting photoelectric surface, it acts like a particle/mass and causes the electron it hits to change its state from one energy level to another, thus knocking it off its atom and causing an electrical current to flow through the semiconductor. Although, we could say that a cycle or wave of a stock market fluctuation, does have an "impact" on people's pocketbooks -- and therefore, while flowing like a wave, it "acts like" a particle... (So, a 90 percent drop in the price of a stock could certainly knock over a big corporation or its stockholders. :-) But then, that sort of cyclic change is not analogous to, or corresponds with a cyclic quantum wave -- such as the fixed frequencies of the light energy spectrum. To compare one with the other is like comparing apples to oranges, and is a categorical error. LHM