Theos-Talk Archives (January 1999 Message tt00285)

>Was Madame Blavatsky as well as the Mahatma KH ignorant

>of what Rich has written on the term "Devachan"?
>
>And if so, why?


Good question, Dan. I have wondered myself why she didn't
choose "bardo" instead of Devachan, which was and still is
an obscure word. But I do think that she was aware of its
Tibetan meaning. She was clearly aware of the six realms,
for example. It could be that KH was pointing out that the
name was being used primarily *because* it could be taken
as both TIbetan and Sanskrit. It seems clear from the MLs
that she used it because KH did, but why he used it remains
a mystery. However, it seems almost Freudian that the term
they finally decided to use for the major after-death state of
the jiva is one whose Tibetan meaning is "bliss."  Now I
have no problem with this at all, but many Theosophists
are doubtless horrified by the association, and perhaps
this is why Dallas and others are reluctant to discuss this
issue?