Re: Theos-World Re: Pi as a fractional number?
Mar 10, 2005 04:21 PM
by Cass Silva
Unscientifically speaking, all liars are cretans. That way we would know who not to trust.
Cass
stevestubbs <stevestubbs@yahoo.com> wrote:
--- In theos-talk@yahoogroups.com, Bart Lidofsky wrote:
> Radians are defined in terms of pi. Regardless of the uses of pi,
or
> means of calculating it, pi is DEFINED a the ratio between the
> circumference and the diameter of a circle.
Aw, you're just jealous because you worship volcanoes and I don't.
Anyway, I have to thank you for a far more interesting topic than the
usual stuff about how Leadbeater was a divine being and how his lies
are really just manifestations of something occult that nobody can
hope to understand or some other silly humbug like that. That kind
of pathetic drivel gets to be too much after awhile. It is nice to
see someone come up with something interesting for a change.
So here's one for you. You probably know that according to
relativity theory time slows down and space contracts in the vicinity
of a gravitational field. So that if the field is sufficiently
intense time and space both vanish. This phenomenon, known as the
Schwarzschild radius, theoretically can exist inside a large mass
(such as a star or even a planet.) But in the case of a neutron star
it exists outside the mass which sustains it.
If you were to approach this phenomenon in a space ship, since time
and space are both contracting as you approach it, it seems to me you
would never actually arrive, but merely approach it as it were
asymptotically. There seems to be some controversy about this, but I
would think it would effectively appear to be at infinity. So here's
the question:
If space vanishes at the Schwarzschild radius, then how is it that
the mass of the neutron star can be inside it. How is it meaningful
to say that there is an "inside" if there is no space? I think I
know the answer, but I put this to the self-proclaimed genius Marilyn
vos Savant, who claims to know everything, and no response, heh,
heh. Anyway, tell me your take on it.
Here is another which is simpler and which has long since been
solved, yet very few people know the answer.
Epimenides of Crete became famous for the statement "All Cretans are
liars," which is a paradoxical statement because the person who
originated it (Epimenides) was a Cretan. I think a more elegant
statement of the same paradox is the modern form "This statement is
not true." Unraveling this one led to a very elegant theory
published by two British mathematicians some seventy or so years
ago. Comments?
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