re Jesus and Mary Magdalen as "his wife" ...
Nov 03, 2003 08:06 PM
by Mauri
A while back I quoted:<<"Behold, I have put
on my garment and all authority is given to
me through the First Mystery.>>
Seems Jesus might've said something like
that after his passing, and might've said, in
effect: <<don't touch me>> to, possibly, Mary
Magdalen in particular, as well as to others ...
Just tonight I found out from a TV
documentary about "THE DA VINCI CODE" that
"don't touch me" is a translation from the
Greek "do not cling to me." That was
interpreted as throwing light on the notion
that (maybe?) Jesus might've been married to
Mary Magdalen, contrary to church dictates.
That is, apparently it just wasn't kosher
those days for unmarried people to "cling" to
each other. Not that ... And the documentary
discussed another theory about the "Da Vinci
Code" re "THE LAST SUPPER" (by Da Vinci) and
the controversy over whether the person on
Jesus's right is a woman or not. Seems like
a woman to me, for the most part, apparently
... Any opinions out there?
As we all here know, I suspect, the early
church people were all kind of male oriented
dictators, among other things, who might not
have taken kindly to allowing much in the way
of a church-related role for Mary Magdalen
(so Da Vinci was thought to have made her
seem as if she might've been male, so as not
to get in trouble). And then there were all
the documents/books that were destroyed on
instructions from the early church,
apparently, so, according to that
documentary, there's no proof that Jesus
might've fathered children who went on to
establish communities in France or elsewhere.
So a question might be: was the "holy grail"
really Mary Magdalen and/or a child ...
Speculatively,
Mauri
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