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re Jesus and Mary Magdalen as "his wife" ...

Nov 03, 2003 08:06 PM
by Mauri




A while back I quoted:<<"Behold, I have put on my garment and all authority is given to me through the First Mystery.>>

Seems Jesus might've said something like that after his passing, and might've said, in effect: <<don't touch me>> to, possibly, Mary Magdalen in particular, as well as to others ...

Just tonight I found out from a TV documentary about "THE DA VINCI CODE" that "don't touch me" is a translation from the Greek "do not cling to me." That was interpreted as throwing light on the notion that (maybe?) Jesus might've been married to Mary Magdalen, contrary to church dictates. That is, apparently it just wasn't kosher those days for unmarried people to "cling" to each other. Not that ... And the documentary discussed another theory about the "Da Vinci Code" re "THE LAST SUPPER" (by Da Vinci) and the controversy over whether the person on Jesus's right is a woman or not. Seems like a woman to me, for the most part, apparently ... Any opinions out there?

As we all here know, I suspect, the early church people were all kind of male oriented dictators, among other things, who might not have taken kindly to allowing much in the way of a church-related role for Mary Magdalen (so Da Vinci was thought to have made her seem as if she might've been male, so as not to get in trouble). And then there were all the documents/books that were destroyed on instructions from the early church, apparently, so, according to that documentary, there's no proof that Jesus might've fathered children who went on to establish communities in France or elsewhere.

So a question might be: was the "holy grail" really Mary Magdalen and/or a child ...

Speculatively,
Mauri







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